A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office for evaluation of vaginal discharge. She underwent a total laparoscopic hysterectomy 2 weeks ago for symptomatic uterine fibroids. The patient had an uncomplicated postoperative course. She was able to ambulate, void, and tolerate a regular diet within 12 hours of surgery and went home on postoperative day 1. However, over the past week, the patient has had persistent malodorous vaginal discharge, requiring her to change pads multiple times a day. She has also been voiding frequently in small volumes and is having increasing vulvar pruritus. She has had no fever, chills, hematuria, or dysuria. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with oral medications. Her other surgeries include 2 cesarean deliveries and laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The patient does not use alcohol or illicit drugs, but she smokes 1 or 2 cigarettes a day. Temperature is 37.1 C (98.8 F) , blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Abdominal incision sites are clean, dry, and intact. External genitalia are diffusely erythematous with superficial excoriations. Sterile speculum examination reveals a pool of clear, thin fluid in the vaginal vault. Nitrazine paper indicates a pH of 5. The vagina has a small, red area of granulation tissue over the anterior aspect; the cuff at the vaginal apex appears intact. On bimanual examination, there are no palpable masses in the vaginal vault. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Collect a sample for gonorrhea and chlamydia testing
B) Evaluate for a postsurgical vesicovaginal fistula
C) Order a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
D) Perform urodynamic incontinence testing
E) Reassure the patient that the discharge is normal after a hysterectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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