A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 1-year history of periodic irritability, anger, tension, and sleep disturbance. The symptoms begin predictably a week before her periods and resolve with menstrual bleeding. She has increased appetite, headaches, breast tenderness, and ankle swelling before her periods. The symptoms are severe enough to impair her performance at work. The patient's past medical history is insignificant. Her cycles are regular and last 29 days. She has no intermenstrual bleeding or vaginal discharge. She has never been pregnant. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She has been sexually active with 1 partner for the last 3 years and uses condoms for contraception. The physician prescribes fluoxetine 20 mg/day. The patient returns after 4 months and says that her symptoms have not improved significantly. She stopped taking fluoxetine 5 days back.
What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Alprazolam
B) Bupropion
C) Citalopram
D) Leuprolide
E) Spironolactone
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q325: A 26-year-old woman is brought to the
Q326: A 14-year-old girl is brought to the
Q327: A 60-year-old woman comes to the office
Q328: A 33-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q329: A 17-year-old girl, gravida 0 para 0,
Q331: A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q332: A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q333: A 22-year-old woman comes to the office
Q334: An 86-year-old woman comes to the office
Q335: A 33-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents