A 26-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to lower abdominal pain for the past 2 days. She reports intractable nausea and vomiting over the last day, but has no fever, chills, sick contacts, or diarrhea. She recently had an hCG injection in preparation for an egg retrieval for infertility treatment. The patient has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and has had no surgeries. Family history is noncontributory. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and pulse is 110/min. BMI is 35 kg/m2. Physical examination shows a distended abdomen with normal bowel sounds and diffuse lower abdominal tenderness to deep palpation. There is no rebound, guarding, or costovertebral angle tenderness. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Transvaginal ultrasound shows bilateral ovarian enlargement with multiple cysts measuring up to 8 x 8 cm and intraabdominal fluid consistent with ascites. Doppler shows preserved blood flow to both ovaries. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A) Ectopic pregnancy
B) Normal course of in vitro fertilization
C) Ovarian hyperstimulation
D) Ovarian torsion
E) Ruptured ovarian cyst
Correct Answer:
Verified
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