A 17-year-old girl comes to the office for increasing malodorous vaginal discharge over the past week. The patient has had no fevers, chills, nausea, dysuria, hematuria, vulvar pruritus, or postcoital bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The patient's menses have become irregular since a progestin-containing intrauterine device was placed 8 months ago. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient is sexually active with a male partner and has had 2 lifetime partners. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient has no known drug allergies. She is currently a senior in high school and will be going to a local university in the fall. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. BMI is 20 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows normal external genitalia with no lesions, erythema, or inguinal lymphadenopathy. Bimanual examination reveals no cervical motion tenderness, a mobile uterus, and no adnexal masses. On speculum examination, there is purulent discharge from the cervical os, and the ectocervix bleeds easily when touched with a cotton swab. The intrauterine device strings are visible in the cervix. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Collect cervical nucleic acid amplification testing and await results before prescribing antibiotics
B) Collect cervical nucleic acid amplification testing and prescribe ceftriaxone and doxycycline
C) Collect cervical nucleic acid amplification testing and prescribe metronidazole
D) Remove the intrauterine device, collect cervical nucleic acid amplification testing, and await results before prescribing antibiotics
E) Remove the intrauterine device, collect cervical nucleic acid amplification testing, and prescribe metronidazole
Correct Answer:
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