A 46-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office due to left nipple discharge. She reports that the discharge began 1 month ago, is present almost daily, and stains her undergarments. It is typically yellow, thin, and sticky but occasionally stains her bra a rust color. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Menses are regular and her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. The patient has 3 children; the youngest was born 6 years ago by cesarean delivery, and a bilateral tubal ligation was performed with the delivery. All 3 children were breastfed. There is no family history of breast cancer in her first-degree relatives. The patient drinks 8-10 alcoholic beverages a week but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. She has no known drug allergies. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Serous discharge is expressed from the left nipple. No palpable masses, skin discoloration or retraction, or axillary lymphadenopathy is present. The right breast has no expressed nipple discharge, masses, or lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Collect sample of discharge for Gram stain and culture
B) Follow up in 3 months
C) Measure the serum prolactin level
D) Order mammography plus ultrasound
E) Perform cytologic testing on the breast discharge
Correct Answer:
Verified
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