A 15-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of lower abdominal pain associated with her menses that has occurred over the past few months. She describes the pain as "dull" and "crampy" and radiating to her back and lower thighs. The pain is associated with nausea and bloating, and the patient vomited twice during her last menstrual cycle. She has tried using a heating pad with minimal relief of symptoms. The patient "dreads" her periods and has missed several days of school due to the pain and vomiting. She has had no dysuria, diarrhea, abnormal vaginal discharge, or abdominal pain between periods. Her menses started at age 14, have occurred every month, and last 5 days. When interviewed alone, she reports that she had a boyfriend last year but is not currently in a relationship and has never had sexual intercourse. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Her immunizations, including the human papillomavirus vaccine, are up to date. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient's aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at age 40 and has been in remission for several years. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 25 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nondistended. Pelvic examination reveals normal external female genitalia and a small, nontender uterus without masses. On speculum examination, a small amount of clear discharge is seen throughout the vaginal vault. The cervix is nulliparous and has no lesions or areas of friability. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CA-125 level
B) Combined oral contraceptives
C) Naproxen therapy
D) Pelvic ultrasound
E) Wet mount microscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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