A 46-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, comes to the office due to increasingly heavy menses. The patient's menstrual periods previously occurred every 30 days and consisted of 4-5 days of moderate bleeding with mild cramping. However, over the past 6 months, her menses have consisted of 5-6 days of heavy bleeding with the passage of clots and severe abdominal cramping. The cramping has been unresponsive to consistent ibuprofen administration. The patient reports increasing fatigue and often sleeps 9-10 hours a night. She had 2 vaginal deliveries and a tubal ligation after the birth of her second child. The patient has no known chronic medical conditions. In addition to ibuprofen, she takes a daily multivitamin. The patient is an accountant and is unable to work during her menstrual cycle due to the pain. She drinks a glass of wine with dinner most days of the week but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37 C (98.6 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 105/min. BMI is 22 kg/m2. The thyroid is nontender with no obvious enlargement or masses. Pelvic examination reveals a uniformly enlarged, mobile uterus. No rectovaginal or adnexal tenderness is present. On speculum examination, the vagina appears well rugated and the cervix has no visible lesions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometriosis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Leiomyoma
E) Perimenopause
Correct Answer:
Verified
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