A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office for an annual examination. She has no intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes a multivitamin daily. She has had 3 uncomplicated vaginal deliveries and no surgeries. The patient has had 2 sexual partners in the past 3 years and uses oral contraceptive pills. Her last Pap test 3 years ago demonstrated atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) , and reflex human papillomavirus (HPV) testing at that time was negative. The patient has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 22 kg/m2. The cervix appears parous and without visible lesions. The uterus is small, anteverted, and mobile, with notable descent of the cervix to the introitus during the Valsalva maneuver; the adnexa are not enlarged. Pap testing indicates a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) . Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Colposcopy
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) HPV co-testing
D) Repeat Pap test within 3 months
E) Vaginal hysterectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q311: A 29-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q312: After several years, the patient returns and
Q313: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the
Q314: During the same visit, she also expressed
Q315: A 46-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q317: A 24-year-old woman comes to the office
Q318: A 46-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3,
Q319: An 18-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q320: A 28-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the
Q321: A 19-year-old woman comes to the student
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents