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A 27-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 3 Para 3, Comes to the Office

Question 316

Multiple Choice

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 3, comes to the office for an annual examination.  She has no intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding or abnormal vaginal discharge.  Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.  The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes a multivitamin daily.  She has had 3 uncomplicated vaginal deliveries and no surgeries.  The patient has had 2 sexual partners in the past 3 years and uses oral contraceptive pills.  Her last Pap test 3 years ago demonstrated atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) , and reflex human papillomavirus (HPV) testing at that time was negative.  The patient has no history of sexually transmitted infections.  Vital signs are normal.  BMI is 22 kg/m2.  The cervix appears parous and without visible lesions.  The uterus is small, anteverted, and mobile, with notable descent of the cervix to the introitus during the Valsalva maneuver; the adnexa are not enlarged.  Pap testing indicates a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) .  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Colposcopy
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) HPV co-testing
D) Repeat Pap test within 3 months
E) Vaginal hysterectomy

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