A 17-year-old girl, gravida 0 para 0, comes to the office for routine examination and an oral contraception prescription. Her menses occur every 28 days and her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is feeling well and is preparing to leave for college in 5 months. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. She has no history of migraine headaches or thromboembolism. The patient is up to date on all vaccinations. Her maternal grandmother has hepatitis B; family history is otherwise noncontributory. The patient currently takes no medications and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She has no known drug allergies. She has been sexually active with one partner for the past 2 years and uses condoms for contraception. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. Weight is 60 kg (132.3 lb) and height is 162.5 cm (5 ft 4 in) . Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. On pelvic examination, no vulvar or cervical lesions and no cervical discharge are present. On bimanual examination, the uterus is small and without cervical motion tenderness. Bilateral adnexa are small, mobile, and nontender. In addition to an oral contraception prescription, which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Hepatitis C RNA test
B) No additional screening indicated at this time
C) Nucleic acid amplification testing for Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Pap test
E) Rapid plasma reagin
Correct Answer:
Verified
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