A 32-year-old woman comes to the office due to heavy vaginal bleeding. For the past 6 months, the patient has had regular menses every 30 days, with 7 days of painful cramping, heavy vaginal bleeding, and passage of large clots. She uses both a tampon and a sanitary napkin simultaneously to prevent blood from staining her underwear and soaking through her clothes. The patient has had no intermenstrual bleeding or abnormal vaginal discharge. Her last menstrual period ended a week ago. Her menses previously consisted of 5 days of mild cramping with moderate bleeding. Past medical history is significant for recurrent migraines with aura, for which she takes daily prophylaxis. The patient is sexually active and uses condoms and spermicide for contraception. She would like to attempt to conceive in the next few years. Blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg and pulse is 84/min. BMI is 23 kg/m2. Pelvic examination reveals a 14-week-sized, irregularly shaped uterus with no cervical motion tenderness or adnexal masses. Hemoglobin is 9.8 g/dL. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a large uterus with several intramural leiomyomas and a normal endometrial stripe. The patient asks what can be done to treat her condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate management at this time?
A) Estrogen/progestin-containing oral contraceptive pills
B) Hysterectomy without bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
C) Long-term GnRH agonist therapy
D) Progestin-releasing intrauterine device
E) Uterine artery embolization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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