A 69-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit. During a recent screening colonoscopy, he underwent complete excision of an 18-mm pedunculated polyp found in the ascending colon. Biopsy showed a high-grade dysplastic villous adenoma without involvement of the stalk or its margins There was no vascular or lymphatic invasion or other features of adenocarcinoma. The patient reports no symptoms and has no family history of colon polyps or colorectal cancer. He is otherwise in good health and has no other medical conditions. No abnormalities are noted on physical examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Annual colonoscopy
B) Repeat colonoscopy in 4-6 months
C) Repeat colonoscopy in 3 years
D) Repeat colonoscopy in 10 years
E) Surgical referral for right hemicolectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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