A 60-year-old man comes to the office for an annual preventive visit. The patient feels healthy and has no symptoms. He has a history of hypertension that is well controlled with lisinopril. The patient does not use tobacco or alcohol; he has a balanced diet and exercises regularly. He had a normal screening colonoscopy 10 years ago but says, "I had an awful experience during the bowel preparation, and I would rather not go through that again." He has no family history of colorectal cancer. Vital signs are normal, and physical examination shows no abnormalities. The patient agrees to undergo flexible sigmoidoscopy, which reveals 2 pedunculated polyps of 1-1.5 cm in the descending colon; the polyps are removed, and histopathology findings are consistent with villous adenoma in both polyps. Which of the following is the best recommendation for this patient regarding colorectal cancer screening?
A) Colonoscopy in 1 year
B) Colonoscopy in 3-5 years
C) Colonoscopy now
D) CT colonography now
E) Sigmoidoscopy in 3-5 years
Correct Answer:
Verified
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