A 39-year-old man comes to the outpatient clinic due to burning epigastric discomfort and nausea for the past 3 months. His symptoms are worse after meals. He has been taking over-the-counter ranitidine for the last 2 weeks with no relief of symptoms. The patient has no other medical issues, and family history is unremarkable. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Hemoglobin is 15.4 g/dL and serum creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue ranitidine for 2-4 more weeks
B) Offer Helicobacter pylori stool antigen testing
C) Schedule an abdominal ultrasound
D) Schedule an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
E) Switch to lansoprazole
Correct Answer:
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