A 31-year-old man comes to the office due to fullness in the epigastric area and occasional nausea over several months. He has had no heartburn, dysphagia, early satiety, or weight loss. The patient has no other medical conditions and takes no medications, including over-the-counter supplements. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Family history is not significant, and the patient has no known drug allergies. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B) Dietary modifications
C) Helicobacter pylori testing
D) Proton pump inhibitor therapy
E) Upper endoscopy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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