A 78-year-old man comes to the office for the evaluation of persistent, severe, low back pain. The pain does not radiate down to his legs, and is not associated with bladder or bowel disturbances. He has metastatic prostate cancer, which has progressed despite hormonal therapy and chemotherapy. A bone scan done 6 weeks ago revealed the presence of 2 vertebral metastases in the L4 and L5 vertebral bodies. He was started on high-dose narcotic analgesics at that time. He says that the narcotics have "taken the edge" off the pain, but he continues to have severe debilitating pain. Neurological examination of the lower extremities is unremarkable. A repeat bone scan reveals results similar to the previous scan results. Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in controlling this patient's symptoms?
A) Refer the patient for radiation therapy.
B) Start the patient on high-dose hormone suppressive therapy.
C) Admit the patient and start him on IV corticosteroids.
D) Consult neurosurgery for surgical resection.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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