A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 1 aborta 1, at 20 weeks gestation comes to the office as she is concerned that she might be at risk for hemolytic disease. She just learned that her sister-in-law's second baby has hydrops fetalis due to Rh(D) incompatibility and is concerned that this could happen to her second baby as well. The patient's pregnancy has been uncomplicated to date. The patient is Rh(D) positive and her husband is Rh(D) negative. Their 3-year-old son is healthy, and he is Rh(D) positive. A year prior, the patient had a missed abortion requiring suction curettage. She has no chronic medical problems and no other surgeries. The patient is taking a prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. Fetal anatomic ultrasound a week prior demonstrated an echogenic intracardiac focus but no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most accurate statement to the patient regarding hemolytic disease due to Rh(D) incompatibility?
A) "The risk of hemolytic disease for your baby can be analyzed using the results of serial ultrasounds."
B) "The risk of hemolytic disease for your baby depends on whether you previously received Rho(D) immune globulin."
C) "The risk of hemolytic disease occurring in this pregnancy is dependent on the baby's Rh blood group."
D) "There is a significant risk of hemolytic disease to your baby due to Rh incompatibility."
E) "There is no risk of hemolytic disease to your baby from Rh incompatibility."
Correct Answer:
Verified
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