A 33-year-old man comes to the office due to fever, malaise, and worsened cough. Six weeks ago, the patient visited the emergency room due to 2 weeks of anorexia, cough, fever, weight loss, and dyspnea. He was hospitalized and found to have a right upper lobe lung infiltrate, acid-fast bacilli in the sputum, a CD4 count of 55/mm3, and an HIV RNA viral load of 125,000 copies/mL. The patient was diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis and HIV infection, and was initiated on antiretroviral therapy and 4-drug tuberculosis treatment. His symptoms steadily improved until 3 days ago when his fever and cough returned. He lives alone but a visiting nurse helps him with his medications; he has taken all medications as prescribed. He has no known drug allergies. The patient has a history of multiple incarcerations and used cocaine heavily in the past. Temperature is 39.6 C (103.2 F) , blood pressure is 126/82 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 20/min. There are no mucosal lesions or skin rash. Lung auscultation reveals right-sided crackles. Heart sounds are normal with no murmur. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. Chest x-ray is performed and reveals a larger-sized lung opacity and worsened hilar lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show a CD4 count of 220/mm3 and HIV RNA viral load of <10,000 copies/mL. Sputum culture results from his previous hospitalization show acid-fast bacilli sensitive to all tested drugs. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue current therapy and provide symptomatic treatment
B) Discontinue all current drugs and start a tapering glucocorticoid regimen
C) Discontinue antimycobacterial drugs and start a tapering glucocorticoid regimen
D) Obtain repeat sputum culture for antimycobacterial drug resistance
E) Obtain several sputum stains for pneumocystis pulmonary infection
Correct Answer:
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