A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department after developing fever and chills during hemodialysis. He still feels feverish but has no sore throat, cough, abdominal pain, nausea, or diarrhea. Temperature was 38.9 C (102 F) at the dialysis center. The patient has a history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, which led to end-stage renal disease. He was initiated on long-term intermittent hemodialysis 2 months ago. The patient has no known drug allergies. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 120/62 mm Hg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 22/min. Oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. There is a tunneled central venous catheter in the right internal jugular vein, and the skin around the insertion site is not erythematous or tender. Cardiopulmonary auscultation reveals clear lung fields and normal heart sounds. The abdomen is soft and nontender. No skin rash or neck stiffness is present. Leukocyte count is 14,000/mm3 with 90% neutrophils. Chest-x ray reveals no infiltrate or consolidation. Two sets of blood cultures, one from a peripheral vein and the other from the central venous catheter, are obtained. Both sets of blood cultures grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The patient's antibiotic regimen is narrowed to vancomycin alone, and the tunneled catheter is removed. On day 4 of hospitalization, he continues to have intermittent fevers. He has no cough, abdominal pain, or diarrhea but does note worsening back pain in his lumbar region, which he attributes to inactivity and the uncomfortable hospital bed. The pain is a dull ache and does not radiate. Examination reveals midline tenderness in the lower lumbar area. Neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Leukocyte count remains elevated at 16,000/mm3. Repeat blood cultures performed after venous catheter removal show no growth. Plain radiographs of the lumbosacral spine reveal no abnormalities. Echocardiography reveals no valvular vegetations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Continue vancomycin and restart cefepime
B) Obtain CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis
C) Obtain MRI of the lumbosacral spine
D) Obtain nuclear medicine tagged white blood cell scan
E) Perform vasculitis screen with ANA, ANCA, and complement levels
Correct Answer:
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