A 24-year-old woman comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit at 32 weeks gestation. Last week, she was evaluated for postcoital spotting. The cervix was closed, and there was no evidence of preterm labor. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) performed at that visit was positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Routine NAAT was negative for C trachomatis at the initial prenatal visit. Today, the patient has no vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid, or contractions. Fetal movement is normal. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She had 3 sexual partners prior to marriage. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her husband for the last 2 years and is sexually active with him. The patient swims at the local pool regularly but stopped after the episode of vaginal bleeding. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. Fundal height is 32 cm. Fetal heart rate is 140/min by Doppler ultrasound. Urine dipstick is negative for glucose and protein. The patient is concerned about the results and wonders how she acquired the infection during her pregnancy.
Which of the following is the most appropriate statement to explain the results?
A) A latent chlamydial infection was reactivated during pregnancy.
B) False-positive results for Chlamydia are common in the third trimester.
C) It is possible that the infection was acquired from the swimming pool.
D) The first trimester test was likely a false-negative result.
E) This is a newly acquired sexually transmitted infection.
Correct Answer:
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