A 32-year-old woman comes to the office due to 3 days of sore throat and cough productive of white sputum. She has also had malaise, nausea, and headache but no shortness of breath. No close contacts have had similar symptoms. The patient has a history of hypertension and acne; she takes lisinopril and uses benzoyl peroxide cream. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient is monogamous with her husband. Family history is significant for chronic kidney disease in her father. She is allergic to penicillin, which causes a rash. Temperature is 38.6 C (101.5 F) , blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, pulse is 83/min, and respirations are 14/min. Oropharyngeal examination reveals pharyngeal erythema, palatal petechiae, and bilateral white, patchy tonsillar exudates. There are 2 tender, 1.5-cm lymph nodes in the anterior cervical chain. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdomen is soft and nontender. No other lymphadenopathy, organomegaly, or rashes are present. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action in management of this patient?
A) Order a rapid antigen detection test
B) Prescribe azithromycin for a 5-day course
C) Prescribe cephalexin for a 10-day course
D) Recommend symptomatic treatment only
E) Send throat culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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