A 34-year-old woman comes to the office to discuss a recent diagnosis of HIV infection. The patient recently donated blood and later received a letter indicating a positive HIV test. She has no symptoms besides feeling anxious about the diagnosis. The patient had an episode of chlamydia cervicitis 5 years ago, and HIV testing was negative at that time. She has had several sexual partners in her lifetime but has been in a monogamous relationship for the past year. She drinks 1-2 glasses of wine at social events and does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination findings are normal. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Initiate 3-drug antiretroviral therapy
B) Obtain cytomegalovirus serology
C) Perform sputum analysis for acid-fast bacilli
D) Repeat CD4+ count and viral load in 6 months
E) Start prophylactic trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
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