A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 34 weeks gestation comes to the office for a prenatal visit. The patient reports no abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Fetal movement is normal. The patient has had urinary frequency throughout her pregnancy, but it has worsened over the last 4 days and is now associated with dysuria. She has no fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, back pain, or hematuria. The pregnancy has been uncomplicated. The patient has no history of chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgery. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. The patient smokes half a pack of cigarettes a day but does not use alcohol or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.0 F) , blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 18/min. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is 140/min. On physical examination, the uterus is nontender and fundal height is 34 cm. Suprapubic tenderness is elicited with deep palpation. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Laboratory results are as follows:
Item 1 of 2 Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for this patient's condition?
A) Cephalexin
B) Ciprofloxacin
C) Clindamycin
D) Tetracycline
E) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Correct Answer:
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