A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department due to fever and lethargy. Her parents say she has been withdrawn and less playful over the last 2 weeks. She has also had several days of low-grade fever and headaches. Since yesterday morning, the patient has mostly slept and seems to be increasingly confused. She has no significant prior medical problems and is up to date with recommended vaccinations. Her grandfather, who is visiting the family from South Asia, is being evaluated for cough; otherwise, the patient has no sick contacts. The family has a pet cat. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) . The patient is somnolent and responds to painful stimuli. There is resistance to passive neck flexion. Her right eye is deviated medially, and funduscopic examination reveals several ill-defined, raised, yellow-white nodules near the bilateral optic discs. CT scan of the head reveals basilar meningeal enhancement. Lumbar puncture is performed, and cerebrospinal fluid analysis results are as follows:
The patient's cerebrospinal fluid samples are sent for acid-fast bacilli staining and culture. The parents note that the patient's grandfather also tested positive for sputum acid-fast bacilli. Which of the following is most accurate about the management of this child?
A) Adjunctive glucocorticoids are likely to reduce morbidity and mortality
B) Antituberculosis treatment should be initiated after bacteriologic confirmation
C) Intrathecal administration of the antitubercular drugs shortens treatment duration
D) Long-term neurologic sequelae are unlikely after prompt initiation of treatment
E) Multidrug antituberculosis treatment for 6 months is usually adequate
Correct Answer:
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