A 28-year-old primigravid woman comes to the office for her first prenatal visit. She is 9 weeks pregnant by date of her last menstrual period. The patient reports excessive tiredness, intermittent nausea, and anorexia. She has also had subjective fever, night sweats, and dry cough. The patient has no prior medical problems and takes a prenatal multivitamin daily. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient's mother recently came to visit her from Southeast Asia but had to return back early after becoming sick. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min. Sclerae are anicteric and mucous membranes are pink and moist. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Fine crackles are present over the right posterior thorax. The abdomen is soft and nontender with no hepatosplenomegaly. Pelvic examination reveals an appropriately enlarged uterus. Chest radiograph reveals a right upper lobe infiltrate with a small cavity. Two of three sputum samples are positive for acid-fast bacilli. Liver function studies are within normal limits and testing for HIV, hepatitis B virus, and hepatitis C virus are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's pulmonary infection?
A) Delay treatment until childbirth due to the higher risk associated with treatment
B) Offer pregnancy termination due to the catastrophic effects of the infection on the fetus
C) Prescribe isoniazid, pyridoxine, and rifampin for a total of 9 months
D) Treat with isoniazid only during pregnancy, followed by repeat sputum culture for acid-fast bacillus
E) Treat with multidrug antituberculosis therapy under close monitoring
Correct Answer:
Verified
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