A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office at 12 weeks gestation for an initial prenatal visit. She is feeling well and reports no nausea, cramping, or vaginal bleeding. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. She takes a prenatal vitamin daily. Pap test and sexually transmitted infection screening last year were normal. Family history is not significant. She drank 1 or 2 alcoholic beverages a week prior to pregnancy, but does not use tobacco or illicit drugs. The patient developed a skin rash and difficulty breathing after taking penicillin for streptococcal pharyngitis as a child. Blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Bimanual examination is consistent with a 12-week-sized uterus. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a singleton intrauterine pregnancy consistent with gestational age. Fetal heart rate is 160/min. Laboratory results from this visit are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Azithromycin
B) Ceftriaxone
C) Doxycycline
D) Erythromycin
E) Penicillin desensitization
Correct Answer:
Verified
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