A 58-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up 2 months after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. During the hospitalization, he underwent cardiac catheterization with a percutaneous coronary intervention to the left anterior descending artery. The patient's subsequent hospital course was uncomplicated, and he has not had any recurrent chest pain, dyspnea, or dizziness. However, since hospitalization he has not been able to achieve an erection sufficient for sexual intercourse, which has never happened previously. The patient says, "I am still interested in sex, but maybe my heart is just not able to work as well as it used to." He continues to have spontaneous nocturnal erections, and reports a satisfying marriage with no significant marital discord. The patient has returned to work as an insurance agent and has experienced no difficulty climbing 2 flights of stairs at his workplace. Medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include aspirin, clopidogrel, metformin, atorvastatin, isosorbide mononitrate, lisinopril, and carvedilol. He does not use alcohol or illicit drugs; he has a 40-pack-year smoking history but quit 8 weeks ago. Vital signs are within normal limits, and physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory testing shows normal blood counts and serum chemistry studies, and hemoglobin A1c is 7.1%. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's erectile dysfunction?
A) Advise the patient not to resume sexual activity until a cardiac stress test is done
B) Intensify glycemic control to improve erectile function
C) Prescribe oral phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor therapy
D) Provide counseling for psychological factors contributing to the erectile dysfunction
E) Recommend discontinuing the beta blocker as it is the most likely culprit
Correct Answer:
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