A 52-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit. He had a pre-employment tuberculin skin test done 3 days ago, and had a skin reaction with 16 mm of induration. He has not had any cough, fever, weight loss, night sweats, or recent exposure to patients with tuberculosis. He has a 40-pack-year history of smoking and continues to smoke heavily. He immigrated from South Korea to the United States about 8 years ago. He had BCG vaccination as a child but never had a tuberculin skin test done in the past. A chest x-ray is ordered and shows right upper lobe fibrosis without signs of active tuberculosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A) Observation and close follow-up of the patient for development of symptoms of pulmonary tuberculosis.
B) Repeat the chest x-ray in 1 month.
C) Start the patient on treatment with daily rifampin for 4 months
D) Start the patient on treatment with isoniazid and rifampin for 9 months.
E) Treat the patient with isoniazid and rifampin for two months, and then continue isoniazid for another seven months.
Correct Answer:
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