A 35-year-old man comes to the office for evaluation of an enlarged testicle. His partner first noticed the enlargement 2 weeks ago. The patient feels well and has had no fever, dysuria, urethral discharge, or scrotal trauma. He has a history of HIV infection and has been on antiretroviral therapy for 2 years. His most recent CD4 count was 550/mm3, and he has never had an HIV-related infection. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 72/min. No lymphadenopathy is present. The lungs are clear to auscultation, and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended with no masses or hepatosplenomegaly. Testicular examination reveals a diffusely enlarged and hard right testicle with no distinct nodules and negative transillumination. The left testis is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Referral for venous embolization
B) Trans-scrotal biopsy of the right testis
C) Trial of empiric antibiotic for 10 days
D) Ultrasonography of the scrotum
E) Urine sample for infection testing
Correct Answer:
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