A 79-year-old man is brought to the office by his daughter. The patient has been having increasing difficulty caring for himself over the last 2 years. He is now dependent on his daughter for meal preparation, shopping, and cleaning. He will frequently go a week without bathing and often has difficulty dressing himself appropriately. The patient sometimes grows frustrated and shouts at his daughter but has never been physically violent. On direct questioning, he states that he feels fine, does not see any reason for coming to the office, and is quite suspicious of his daughter's motives. The patient has lived alone since his wife died 5 years ago. He has hypertension, osteoarthritis, and a history of remitted major depressive disorder. Medications include hydrochlorothiazide and acetaminophen as needed. Neurologic examination is nonfocal. The patient scores 20 out of 30 on the Montreal Cognitive Assessment. Neuroimaging studies reveal diffuse cortical atrophy. The laboratory workup is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
A) Bromocriptine
B) Quetiapine
C) Rivastigmine
D) Selegiline
E) Sertraline
Correct Answer:
Verified
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