A 74-year-old Caucasian female is brought to the physician's office by her daughter because she has been coughing a lot for the past four weeks. Her cough is present throughout the day, and is most prominent at nighttime. She easily gets "out of breath" while walking around the house. She denies fevers, rigors, or sputum production. She has a past medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, congestive heart failure with an ejection fraction of 35%, history of ventricular tachycardia, hypothyroidism, and vascular dementia. Her daily medications include aspirin, metoprolol, furosemide, levothyroxine, amiodarone, and multivitamins. She is allergic to ACE inhibitors and penicillin. On examination, her temperature is 37.2C (99F) , blood pressure is 110/82 mmHg, heart rate is 82/min, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Her mucous membranes are moist. There is no evidence of jugular venous distention. The lung examination reveals equal and normal air entry on both sides, with fine end inspiratory crackles heard at both the lung bases. Cardiovascular examination reveals a regular heart rhythm with no evidence of S3 gallop or murmurs. The rest of her physical examination is unremarkable. An initial chest x-ray reveals the presence of a normal cardiac silhouette. There is no evidence of pleural effusions. There are diffuse interstitial opacities seen bilaterally in the lower lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in her management?
A) Stop amiodarone
B) Increase the dose of furosemide (Lasix)
C) Discontinue metoprolol
D) Increase the dose of metoprolol
E) Start digoxin
Correct Answer:
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