A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter for evaluation of an episode of slurred speech and right upper extremity weakness. The symptoms began approximately 3 hours ago and lasted an hour. He had no associated headache, chest pain, palpitations, shortness of breath, or syncope. The patient has had no similar episodes in the past. He now feels well. Medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 60-pack-year smoking history but quit 8 years ago. The patient's mother had atrial fibrillation. Blood pressure is 162/96 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Auscultation of the upper anterior cervical triangle on the left side of the neck reveals a bruit. Neurologic examination is normal. No lower extremity edema is present. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 110 mg/dL. ECG shows normal sinus rhythm and nonspecific ST-segment and T-wave changes. MRI of the brain shows mild age-related changes but no areas of restricted diffusion. MR angiogram reveals 75% stenosis of the proximal left internal carotid artery and normal intracerebral vessels. Echocardiography shows left ventricular hypertrophy, normal left ventricular function, and mild left atrial enlargement. A patent foramen ovale is detected via agitated saline study. Lower extremity ultrasound is negative for deep vein thrombosis. He is started on aspirin and rosuvastatin. Which of the following is the best management strategy for this patient?
A) Addition of clopidogrel
B) Carotid endarterectomy
C) Extended ambulatory rhythm monitoring
D) Oral anticoagulation
E) Percutaneous closure of patent foramen ovale
Correct Answer:
Verified
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