A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department 2 hours after the onset of weakness in his left arm and leg. Two months ago, he had a 15-minute episode of left arm weakness that resolved spontaneously. He has had no headache, nausea, vomiting, or difficulty swallowing. His medications include chlorthalidone, lisinopril, and metformin. The patient occasionally takes ibuprofen for muscle cramps and antacids for heartburn. His temperature is 36.7 C (98.0 F) , blood pressure is 172/98 mm Hg, and pulse is 83/min with a regular rhythm. Physical examination shows a dense, left-sided hemiparesis. Fingerstick blood glucose is 108 mg/dL. CT scan of the head without contrast shows no signs of intracranial hemorrhage The patient receives appropriate therapy. The next day, neurologic examination shows some improvement of the left-sided weakness. Carotid duplex ultrasound scanning shows bilateral atherosclerotic plaques with no significant stenosis, and an electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Echocardiogram
B) Electroencephalogram
C) Hypercoagulability panel
D) Left arm Doppler
E) Lumbar puncture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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