A 45-year-old Caucasian man comes to see you in the office. He is accompanied by his wife. They have noticed that he has shakiness of both hands for the past six months. The shakiness is limited only to his hands and has not progressed over time. It becomes much more pronounced when he tries to pick up things or attempts to eat or drink. On physical examination, you notice a constant tremor in both his hands, which becomes much more pronounced when his arms are outstretched. There is also a very subtle head tremor present. There is no rigidity or slowing of voluntary movements in the upper or lower extremities. His father had a similar problem in his 50s or 60s, but he is not sure what treatment he received at that time. His wife is extremely anxious and wants to know his prognosis.
Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) Most of the patients with this disease have a normal life expectancy.
B) The symptoms will usually resolve over the next 5-10 years.
C) The disease will invariably cause significant disability in the next 3-5 years.
D) Medications can completely resolve all the symptoms of this disease.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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