A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 13 weeks gestation comes to the office for a prenatal visit. The patient had painless vaginal spotting a few weeks ago that has since resolved. An ultrasound was performed several days ago as a part of the first-trimester integrated screening. The patient's previous 2 pregnancies ended in uncomplicated term vaginal deliveries. She has no chronic medical conditions. Her only surgery was a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. She is the vice principal at a local elementary school and volunteers as a basketball coach. The patient takes a prenatal vitamin and an iron supplement daily. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient attends a yoga class 3 times a week. Blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 26 kg/m2. Fetal heart rate is 150/min. The ultrasound reveals a 13-week fetus with a normal nuchal translucency measurement and a 1.8-cm (0.71-in) , crescent, hypoechoic area between the gestational sac and the uterus, which is consistent with a hematoma. The patient's blood type is B, Rh positive. The other results from the first-trimester integrated screening are normal. Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniocentesis
B) Cerclage placement
C) Expectant management
D) Hospital admission for bed rest
E) Kleihauer-Betke test
Correct Answer:
Verified
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