A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 1 aborta 1, at 36 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain and heavy vaginal bleeding that began acutely an hour ago. She reports no leakage of fluid. The patient's 11-week and 18-week ultrasounds revealed a singleton intrauterine pregnancy with a posterior placenta. She was previously evaluated in the emergency department at 27 weeks gestation for preterm contractions after she fell on her abdomen. Her examination at that time was normal and she was discharged without intervention. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. Her pregnancy history includes an 8-week spontaneous abortion and a cesarean delivery after a failed labor induction. The patient smokes ½ pack of cigarettes a day, but does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and iron supplementation. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 150/min, moderate variability, no accelerations, and occasional late decelerations. Tocometer shows contractions every 2 minutes. Abdominal examination demonstrates a firm, tender, gravid abdomen. Speculum examination shows 50 mL of clotted blood in the vagina and continued heavy bleeding. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced, with the fetal head at 0 station. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Bloody show
C) Placenta accreta
D) Placenta previa
E) Uterine rupture
Correct Answer:
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