A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 7 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department for vaginal bleeding that began 3 hours ago and has soaked through a pad. Since her arrival, the bleeding has subsided. She reports no abdominal pain or cramping. Her first prenatal visit is in 1 week. The patient has a history of HIV, contracted 3 years ago through unprotected sexual intercourse, but she has declined treatment as she has felt "healthy." She has no previous surgeries. The patient's 2 prior pregnancies ended in uncomplicated term vaginal deliveries; the last delivery was 4 years ago. Her last Pap test, 4 years ago, was normal. She has smoked half a pack of cigarettes a day for 13 years but does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows no tenderness or masses. The external genitalia have no lesions. Speculum examination reveals minimal bright red blood in the vaginal vault. The cervix is closed and there is a 3-cm, firm, white, irregular mass on the anterior cervix that bleeds when touched with a cotton applicator. Laboratory results are as follows:
A bedside transvaginal ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestation with normal fetal cardiac activity. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer azithromycin plus ceftriaxone
B) Apply trichloroacetic acid to the lesion
C) Perform a cervical punch biopsy
D) Perform a suction curettage
E) Repeat quantitative β-hCG level in 48 hours
Correct Answer:
Verified
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