A 2-day-old boy is in the newborn nursery. He was born full term via normal spontaneous vaginal delivery to a 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2. The mother had regular prenatal care and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has a history of postpartum lactational mastitis with her first child but feels comfortable breastfeeding her new baby. The boy has normal vital signs and appropriate urine and stool output. On examination, he has small, palpable masses of soft tissue under each nipple. There is some white discharge from both nipples. His circumcised penis is healing well and the testes are descended bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this neonate?
A) Measure serum prolactin level
B) MRI of the brain
C) Reassure the parents
D) Start an antistaphylococcal antibiotic
E) Ultrasound of the breasts
Correct Answer:
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