A 22-year-old primigravida comes to the office at 12 weeks gestation for her first prenatal visit. The patient was unaware that she was pregnant until last week, when she went to the emergency department for persistent vomiting; an ultrasound confirmed an intrauterine pregnancy. The patient has irregular menstrual cycles due to polycystic ovary syndrome. Nine months ago, she stopped taking oral contraceptives due to intolerable side effects; she did not inform her provider. The patient also has a history of idiopathic seizures beginning in childhood and receives valproate monotherapy. She states, "I just read in one of those maternity books that seizure medications can be bad for my baby. Should I stop now? I have not had a seizure in a long time." Her last seizure occurred a year ago after an attempt to change her medication regimen; she was hospitalized for aspiration pneumonia afterward. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. There is no family history of congenital abnormalities. Item 1 of 2
Which of the following is the best strategy for management of this patient?
A) Continue valproate and offer alpha-fetoprotein screening
B) Discontinue all antiepileptic medications and start high-dose folic acid
C) Switch to carbamazepine and provide first-trimester combined screening
D) Switch to phenobarbital and offer chorionic villus sampling
E) Terminate the pregnancy due to anomalies incompatible with life
Correct Answer:
Verified
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