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A 21-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Para 1, Comes to the Emergency

Question 797

Multiple Choice

A 21-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the emergency department for abdominal pain and a severe headache.  The pain started 2 days ago in the epigastrium and now radiates to the right upper quadrant.  The pain was initially responsive to acetaminophen but has become increasingly severe.  The patient also reports an occipital headache accompanied by blurry vision.  A week ago, she had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation and, after a normal postpartum course, was discharged on day 2.  The patient has a history of migraines for which she typically takes daily prophylactic medication.  She stopped the medication when she became pregnant.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min.  The visual fields are normal and there is no nuchal rigidity.  Abdominal examination reveals tenderness to palpation over the epigastrium and right upper quadrant, and there is hepatomegaly.  Bilateral lower extremities have 2+ pitting edema to the knees.  Laboratory results are as follows: A 21-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the emergency department for abdominal pain and a severe headache.  The pain started 2 days ago in the epigastrium and now radiates to the right upper quadrant.  The pain was initially responsive to acetaminophen but has become increasingly severe.  The patient also reports an occipital headache accompanied by blurry vision.  A week ago, she had an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at 39 weeks gestation and, after a normal postpartum course, was discharged on day 2.  The patient has a history of migraines for which she typically takes daily prophylactic medication.  She stopped the medication when she became pregnant.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min.  The visual fields are normal and there is no nuchal rigidity.  Abdominal examination reveals tenderness to palpation over the epigastrium and right upper quadrant, and there is hepatomegaly.  Bilateral lower extremities have 2+ pitting edema to the knees.  Laboratory results are as follows:   Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A) Hydralazine B) Magnesium sulfate C) N-acetylcysteine D) Plasma exchange E) Sumatriptan Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Hydralazine
B) Magnesium sulfate
C) N-acetylcysteine
D) Plasma exchange
E) Sumatriptan

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