A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 8 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to nausea and vomiting. The patient has had nausea and vomiting once or twice a day for the past 2 weeks; today, she has vomited 3 times, but has been able to tolerate liquids and small snacks. She has no fever, chills, diarrhea, or sick contacts. The patient has had no vaginal bleeding, dysuria, or abdominal pain. She has gastroesophageal reflux disease, and has been following a diet of small, frequent, bland meals. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and H2 receptor antagonist. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and heart rate is 80/min. Weight is 50 kg (110.2 lb) , a 0.8-kg (1.8-lb) increase from her prepregnancy weight. Mucous membranes are moist. Cardiac examination shows a regular rate and rhythm with no murmurs. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended. Serum electrolytes are normal. Urine dipstick is negative for ketones. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals an intrauterine pregnancy with cardiac activity at 160/min, and a crown-rump length consistent with an 8-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Admit to hospital for bed rest and total parenteral nutrition
B) Admit to hospital for intravenous glucocorticoids with oral taper
C) Admit to hospital for intravenous hydration and antiemetics
D) Discharge patient with oral vitamin B6 and H1 antihistamine
E) Replace H2 receptor antagonist with proton pump inhibitor and discharge the patient
Correct Answer:
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