A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office to establish prenatal care. The patient reports no nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, or vaginal bleeding. However, over the past year, she has experienced progressive shortness of breath "during usual daily activities" and has noticed that her fingers turn blue with exertion. The patient has an unrepaired congenital ventricular septal defect and pulmonary hypertension, and has heart failure that is managed with diuretics. She had an episode of unprotected intercourse 2 months ago but is not currently sexually active. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, and respirations are 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows 89% on room air. BMI is 23 kg/m2. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 6-week intrauterine gestation with a normal fetal heart rate. Recent echocardiogram showed an ejection fraction of 25%. The patient asks how her medical condition and pregnancy should be managed. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
A) Corrective cardiac surgery during the second trimester
B) Corrective cardiac surgery now
C) Pregnancy termination due to a high risk of maternal mortality
D) Routine prenatal care and cesarean delivery at 36 weeks gestation
E) Routine prenatal care as symptoms typically improve during pregnancy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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