A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 11 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient is doing well and has no vaginal bleeding or cramping. Earlier in the pregnancy, she had mild nausea that she managed by eating multiple small meals throughout the day. The patient has a history of cystitis that occurred prior to pregnancy, but currently has no dysuria or hematuria. She has no chronic medical conditions or previous surgeries. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin. The patient has no known drug allergies and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She runs on a treadmill for 45 minutes, 4 times a week. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Fetal heart rate is 140/min by Doppler ultrasound. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory results from her initial prenatal visit are reviewed; a routine clean catch urine culture grew >100,000 colony-forming units/mL of Escherichia coli. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Oral cephalexin 4 times daily for 5 days
B) Oral nitrofurantoin daily until 6 weeks postpartum
C) Oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole twice daily for 3 days
D) Reassurance and routine follow-up
E) Repeat urine culture at this visit
Correct Answer:
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