A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to 2 days of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal distension. The patient has no abdominal pain. He has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, coronary artery disease, and congestive heart failure. The patient also has chronic back pain due to a compression fracture 6 months ago. Medications include aspirin, oxycodone, furosemide, losartan, vitamin D, calcium gluconate, and simvastatin. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min. The abdomen is distended but soft and nontender. There is no rebound tenderness or rigidity. Bowel sounds are decreased. There is 1+ peripheral edema. Laboratory results are as follows:
An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm. Abdominal x-rays show diffuse bowel distension with a gas pattern in the colon and rectum. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Intravenous antibiotics
B) Intravenous potassium
C) Methylnaltrexone
D) Spironolactone
E) Stat abdominal CT scan
Correct Answer:
Verified
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