A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 18 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to severe right flank pain. The pain is sharp and paroxysmal and radiates to her labia. When the pain occurs, she has associated nausea and vomiting. The patient has no fever, hematuria, dysuria, or increased urinary frequency. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Her pregnancy had been uncomplicated and initial prenatal laboratory testing was normal. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. The abdomen is tender to palpation along the right side, but there is no rebound or guarding. Pelvic examination reveals an 18-week-sized uterus. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) MRI urography
B) No additional workup indicated
C) Noncontrast helical CT scan
D) Quantitative β-hCG level
E) Renal and pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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