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A 40-Year-Old Man Comes to the Nephrology Clinic for Follow-Up

Question 986

Multiple Choice

A 40-year-old man comes to the nephrology clinic for follow-up due to poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis.  He initially had gross hematuria and edema associated with hypertension and required treatment with a diuretic.  Two weeks prior to the onset of symptoms, the patient had acute pharyngitis that resolved without treatment.  At the time of diagnosis, the serum C3 level was decreased, and the antistreptolysin O titer was elevated.  Which of the following factors most likely indicates a poor long-term prognosis for this patient's condition?


A) Age at diagnosis
B) Associated hypertension
C) Delay in corticosteroid treatment
D) Elevated antistreptolysin O titer
E) Gross hematuria

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