A 42-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of elevated blood pressure. She says, "I checked my blood pressure on a machine at the pharmacy, and it was 160/90 mm Hg. The pharmacist said I should see a doctor." The patient has no history of hypertension and has had no chest pain, headache, or focal weakness or numbness. She notes occasional episodes of pain in her flanks, which she ascribes to muscle tension. The patient has had several urinary tract infections over the course of her life but has no chronic medical problems and takes no medication regularly. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. The patient is married and has a son. Her mother has hypertension, her father died at an early age in a motor vehicle collision, and her uncle has renal failure and receives dialysis. Blood pressure is 156/94 mm Hg on the right arm and 152/96 mm Hg on the left arm. Pulse is 80/min and respirations are 16/min. Jugular venous pressure is within normal limits. Breath sounds are normal bilaterally with no crackles. Point of maximal impulse is displaced to the left and down. Heart sounds are normal with no murmur or gallops. The abdomen is soft with bilateral flank fullness. Bowel sounds are active. Laboratory results are as follows.
Urinalysis shows dysmorphic erythrocytes and mild proteinuria. ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy with nonspecific ST-T wave changes. After learning about the disease, the patient becomes worried that her 19-year-old son may also have the same condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the patient?
A) He has a 50% chance of getting the disease only if your husband is the carrier for the mutation.
B) He is at increased risk, and I recommend periodic serum creatinine levels.
C) He needs no screening tests other than periodic blood pressure checks.
D) Renal ultrasonography can be used as a screening test after counseling.
E) We should ascertain his disease status with genetic testing.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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