A 27-year-old man comes to the physician with pain in his left knee, ankle, and lower back over the last week. His back feels stiff in the morning and improves with activity. Three months ago, he was treated for chlamydia proctitis with azithromycin and ceftriaxone. He also had painless sores on his glans penis, but tests for syphilis were negative at that time. On examination, he still has multiple shallow ulcers on the glans penis. The patient reports no change in appearance of the ulcers over the 3-month period. There is no urethral discharge or inguinal lymphadenopathy. The left knee and ankle joints are swollen and nontender. No redness or warmth is noted. Laboratory results are as follows:
Synovial fluid aspirated from the knee shows a white blood cell count of 4,000/mm3 with 80% neutrophils. Gram stain is negative and no pathogen is isolated on fluid culture.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Antinuclear antibody testing
B) Nucleic acid amplification test of penile lesions for Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Repeat dark field microscopy for Treponema pallidum
D) Repeat urinary nucleic acid amplification test forC trachomatis
E) Viral culture of penile lesion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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