A 64-year-old man arrives at the office with a 6-month history of urinating difficulties, including frequent straining and dribbling. His symptoms have worsened over time and have a significant impact on his quality of life. The doctor prescribes a medication that provides the patient with moderate symptom relief. He does, however, have a decrease in libido and impaired erectile function. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this patient's medication?
A) Decreased dihydrotestosterone synthesis
B) Decreased Leydig cell androgen synthesis
C) Decreased Leydig cell stimulation by LH
D) Decreased peripheral androgen aromatization
E) Impaired androgen-receptor interaction
F) Impaired second messenger action
Correct Answer:
Verified
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