A 71-year-old woman visits the emergency room after experiencing orthopnea and increasing dyspnea for the past week. She has a 15% left ventricular ejection fraction, a history of myocardial infarction, and systolic heart failure. Medications taken by the patient, including carvedilol, furosemide, aspirin, lisinopril, and atorvastatin, are taken as prescribed. Both the blood pressure and the pulse measure 118/74 mm Hg. Bilateral lower extremities pitting edema, bibasilar crackles, an S3 heart sound, and high jugular venous pressure are all found during the examination. Dobutamine infusion is started for the patient, which significantly reduces their symptoms. A little improvement in cardiac contractility is seen on an echocardiogram. Which of the following is the likely mechanism underlying this patient's clinical improvement?
A) Cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase inhibition
B) Gs protein-adenylate cyclase activation
C) Late-phase inward sodium channel inhibition
D) Sodium-potassium exchange pump inhibition
E) Soluble guanylate cyclase activation
F) Voltage-dependent calcium channel inhibition
Correct Answer:
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