An otherwise healthy 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up visit for elevated blood pressure. Three months ago, her blood pressure was 160/80 mmHg. she reported episodic headaches due to migraines. Her blood pressure at that visit was 145/92 mm Hg. Antihypertensive therapy with a beta blocker was started due to its beneficial effect on migraine prophylaxis. On today's visit, her blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies, including thyroid function studies, serum electrolytes, and serum creatinine, are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely combination of changes in response to this patient's treatment (AT = Angiotensin) ?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Eductional Objective: Beta-1 receptor-mediated regulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. in hypertensive patient and migraine, a beta-blockers drugs are suggestive which inhibit renin release and reduce plasma renin activity and then reduce in angiotensin I, angiotensin II, and aldosterone levels.

An Otherwise Healthy 40-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Physician for a Follow-Up